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ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management PDF Dumps Files, ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Pdf Exam Dump

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ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management PDF Dumps Files - Realistic ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Pdf Exam Dump Free PDF Quiz

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

Topic 2

AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.

Topic 3

Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q18-Q23):

NEW QUESTION # 18
An organization has a dedicated release management team that is effective in managing releases, but this team has very poor coordination with the change enablement team. What capability level of release management does this indicate?

A. Level 3
B. Level 4
C. Level 2
D. Level 1

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model evaluates not only the effectiveness of a practice but also its integrationwith other practices. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is effective in its own scope but may lack integration with other practices. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and effective coordination with related practices like change enablement" (Section 5.2).
* The scenario shows that the release management team is effective (meeting Level 2), but poor coordination with the change enablement team indicates a lack of integration.
* Level 1 (Ad-hoc) would mean no consistent process, which isn't the case here since the team is effective.
* Level 3 requires integration and standardization across practices, which is not met due to poor coordination.
* Level 4 is even more advanced, requiring quantitative management, which isn't applicable.
The capability level is B (Level 2), as the practice is effective but lacks the integration needed for Level
3.

NEW QUESTION # 19
Which activity of the 'release model development and improvement' process is used to standardize the preparation of release instances?

A. Release management approach review and development
B. Release model review and development
C. Product architecture and service relationship analysis
D. Release execution

Answer: B

Explanation:
The release model development and improvement process aims to create and refine standardizedmodels for releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains:"Release model review and development involves defining and standardizing the structure, contents, and schedule of releases to ensure consistency in the preparation of release instances"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Release management approach review and development) focuses on the overall practice approach, not specifically the preparation of release instances.
* Option B (Release model review and development) directly addresses standardizing the preparation of release instances by defining repeatable models.
* Option C (Product architecture and service relationship analysis) is a supporting activity to understand dependencies, not to standardize release preparation.
* Option D (Release execution) is the process of deploying a release, not developing or standardizing models.
The correct answer is B, as it directly relates to standardizing release preparation through model development.

NEW QUESTION # 20
A release manager has noticed that the organization has many standardized services provided to international organizations. Which aspect of release management will this situation directly affect?

A. Continuous delivery
B. Continuous integration
C. The release models
D. The release plans

Answer: C

Explanation:
Standardized services provided to international organizations imply a need for consistency andscalability in how releases are managed across diverse contexts. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document explains that release models are used to standardize the approach to releases:"Release models define the structure, contents, and schedule of releases... They ensure consistent and repeatable processes, which is particularly important for organizations with standardized services"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (The release plans) refers to specific plans for individual releases, which may be affected indirectly but are not the primary aspect impacted by standardization needs.
* Option B (Continuous integration) and Option C (Continuous delivery) are development practices that may interact with release management but are not directly affected by the need for standardization across international services.
* Option D (The release models) is directly affected, as standardized services require well-defined release models to ensure consistency, repeatability, and scalability across international contexts.
The situation directly impacts the design and application of release models to accommodate standardized services globally. Thus, the correct answer is D.

NEW QUESTION # 21
What automation tools should be used to help a release manager understand how the organization's services are related to one another?

A. Enterprise architecture tools
B. Monitoring and event management tools
C. Work planning and prioritization tools
D. Analysis and reporting tools

Answer: A

Explanation:
Understanding service relationships is critical for effective release management, especially to assess the impact of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Enterprise architecture tools help release managers understand the relationships between services, applications, and infrastructure, enabling better impact analysis and dependency mapping for releases"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Analysis and reporting tools) focuses on performance metrics, not service relationships.
* Option B (Work planning and prioritization tools) aids in scheduling, not understanding service dependencies.
* Option C (Monitoring and event management tools) is used for real-time performancetracking, not structural relationships.
* Option D (Enterprise architecture tools) is the correct choice, as these tools map out service relationships and dependencies, helping the release manager plan releases effectively.
The correct answer is D, as enterprise architecture tools are designed for this purpose.

NEW QUESTION # 22
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?

A. Alignment of release management procedures between the organization and its suppliers
B. The satisfaction rating given by service consumers of individual releases
C. The number of releases that were implemented after the target implementation date
D. The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents

Answer: D

Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 23
......

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